Re: "what was once theirs"
by
mrachmuth
01/25/2008, 7:04 PM #
And no "Palestinian" can make such a claim, either.
Please tell why the Jews shouldn't have a homeland "created" for them, buth the Jews should. Remember, there never was nation, nationality, religion, or ethnic group known as "Palestinian" until relatively recent times.
The majority of Jordanians are Palestinians. In 1948, the Partition of the Mandate of Palestine (which was formerly the Ottoman Empire's province of Palestine, nat a separate nation of Palestine) created two new nations; a Jewish state, with less than 40% of the territory and a Palestinian state with over 60% of the territory, and both Jordan and Egypt took control of that Palestinian territory. At the same time, all the surrounding Moslem states took the land and possessions of the Jews who were living in the Moslem lands, including in the West Bank of Judea, and sent them packing, with no compensation. As many Jews were bereft of their land as were Palestinians who left what became the state of Israel.
Why isn't (or wasn't) Jordan the Palestinian state? Why aren't the Jews who never left Judea allowed to have a state of their own? Why aren't the surrounding Moslem states equally critised and made to pay compensation or care for those they have oppressed or exploited?
Yes, Europe created Israel to compensate for a wrong that they had done many times to their Jewish populations. But, what better place to allow the Jews to establish a place of their own, than a small sliver of a land that had always been associated with them? A perfect solution, no. But neither is it an implausible or wrong solution.