I'm not a constitutional scholar, so I'm happy to be told I'm in error about this. But I'm trying to understand how W. Dellinger can say that there is no harm to the taxpayers in Hein, and so no standing. Isn't the precedent, upheld by the FEC ruling, that spending money is a form of speech? And so isn't saying it's okay to spend my tax money on something sort of a tacit way of saying I agree with or I approve of what it is being spent on? So if my tax money is being spent to support religious institutions that I don't support or agree with, isn't that a violation of my first amendment rights? I mean isn't the harm that the government is essentially forcing me to support particular religious institutions that I might not agree with? Or by Dellinger's argument, would my case only have merit if I argued that having to support a specific religious institution with my tax money was violating my freedom to practice religion (or not) in the way I want.
I realize that there's a potential problem with the argument I've laid out b/c it opens the door to saying that spending tax dollars on anything that I don't approve of is a violation of my right to free speech (in the form of silence in support of things I don't like). But I would think that there's probably a fairly clear way to distinguish between spending in general and spending that targets only specific religious institutions (and not all non-profits in general). Also, my argument isn't that the court should necessarily find for the taxpayer group in this case, but that I think that if the legislature or the executive branch is going to ask me to contribute money to religious groups...then I should at least be able to have the judiciary decide if they're doing it in a constitutional way.