My, you're being selective.
by
GeneralDisarray
12/04/2007, 12:35 PM #
1) Pinker, not Herrnstein. But even in the case of Herrnstein..
"Herrnstein claimed that documentation for Kamin's quotation
was not found in the Goddard article to which Kamin had made reference,
and that even if such evidence did appear in another place, it
was most likely based on an early translation of the Binet test
which would overestimate mental deficiency in any population it
was given to."
Not exactly a strong refutation of the validity of testing.
Of course, Herrnstein was also being very selective:
"But
even if one ignores the biases evident in Goddard's research methods
and the fact that he published his study a year after Terman's
Stanford revision was disseminated, Herrnstein's argument could
only be valid if "post-IQ" mental testing had not also produced
similar data. An example of a similar conclusion based on the
Stanford-Binet IQ test itself is found in the very book by Terman
which Herrnstein quoted in Goddard's behalf. In that work Terman
wrote that "borderline" intelligence "is very, very common among
Spanish-Indian and Mexican families of the southwest and also
among negroes. Their dullness seems to be racial, or at least
inherent in the family stocks from which they come."(16)
Thus, neither of Herrnstein's arguments succeeded in getting Goddard
and the early mental testing movement off the hook."
Maybe you should give the article a closer reading? That might clear up your confusion.
I'm not talking specifically about the Rushton and Jensen article. Hasn't Pinker (and others) made such an argument?