In reading this article I got as far as the description of "disparate effect" and stopped reading. Just because any qualification for employment established by an employer screened out a disportionate percentate of any "protected" group does not automatically mean that the employer is guilty of illegal discrimination
I suggest you go read Title VII Section K reads
(k) Burden of proof in disparate impact cases
(1)(A) An unlawful employment practice based on disparate impact
is established under this subchapter only if -
(i) a complaining party demonstrates that a respondent uses a
particular employment practice that causes a disparate impact on
the basis of race, color, religion, sex, or national origin and
the respondent fails to demonstrate that the challenged practice
is job related for the position in question and consistent with
business necessity; or
(ii) the complaining party makes the demonstration described in
subparagraph (C) with respect to an alternative employment
practice and the respondent refuses to adopt such alternative
employment practice.
(B)(i) With respect to demonstrating that a particular employment
practice causes a disparate impact as described in subparagraph
(A)(i), the complaining party shall demonstrate that each
particular challenged employment practice causes a disparate
impact, except that if the complaining party can demonstrate to the
court that the elements of a respondent's decisionmaking process
are not capable of separation for analysis, the decisionmaking
process may be analyzed as one employment practice.
(ii) If the respondent demonstrates that a specific employment
practice does not cause the disparate impact, the respondent shall
not be required to demonstrate that such practice is required by
business necessity.
So while it is true that "just because' there is a disparate impact doesn't mean that illegal discrimination has taken place, THE BURDEN OF PROOF FALLS TO THE EMPLOYER.
And to meet that burden they MUST SHOW that the HIRING CRITERIA is 100% business related.
For instance, an employer looking to hire an engineer will automatically screen out any candidate that does not have a degree in engineering. Disparate effect? Hardly.
Strawman arguement. But if the job doesn't require an engineering degree, but the employer requires one, THEN it could very well BE "disparate impact".
For this writer to interpret this concept of illegal discrimination in the manner described automatically brings into play something both state and federal laws specifically prohibit: quotas.
Nope. It just places the burden of proof that discrimination did not occur ON THE EMPLOYER, This was done for very good reason. Many many many employers engaged (and continue to engage in ) "nudge and a wink" style "plausible deniabilit" in their hiring practices
I don't think we want civil rights interpreted in this manner.
Why not? I would argue that Quotas are a fairer way to deal with the issues. It provides the employer incentive to seek out qualified minority candidates or to groom minority candidates from within. All this does is offset the daily unearned benefits whites and white males in particular receive.
Gone then would be arguements about what is and is not discrimination.
What's really curious is that Quotas were the PREFERED MECHANISM that CONSERVATIVES USED to implement equal rights protections in Iraq and Afghanistan. Odd that.