Mr. Saletan, thanks for the invitation and your wililngness to engage in a debate; particularly in light of the tone of the some of the responses. I wish I had gotten back to this sooner, but I've been a little swamped; however, I do have some thoughts about that earlier column.
I think that you make a convincing argument for taking into account the age of the perpetrator, much of which I agree with, although I think about it slightly differently. To me, it's sort of a necessary correlary to the move to make these laws gender nuetral, because now you have to consider the mental and emotional capacity of both parties, not just one. So, if you have two teens who are both under the age of consent, neither of them are considered capable of consenting. Realistically, if neither have the mental capacity for consent, neither can have the mental capacity for criminal culpability as a result of their actions either. When one of the parties is over the age of consent but just barely, I think you still have that consideration in play - that person is still less likely to have full competence with regard to sexual decisions. In addition, because in that case the age gap between the two individuals is quite small, the situation is much less likely to be inherently coercive as a situation between an older adult and child. I'm not convinced that such treatment should extend up to the age of 25; but that partially depends in my mind on the age-span. I can maybe see that between 17 or 18 and 25, it makes sense, but not so much between 13-15 and 25. I understand that this is based on studies showing that it's not really until 25 that the majority of the population is achieving pyschosocial maturity. On the other hand, we generally consider 18 to be the age of majority for most other purposes and most other crimes, and it seems that psychosocial maturity is equally relevant to other crimes as well. It's hard for me to see why we should create an exception to the general age of majority for criminal liability for sexual acts without more of a basis that is specific to that type of activity.
I think that the article does not, however, make an argument for raising the age of consent generally. If anything, the evidence of the article concering cognitive and emotional competence at various ages seems to support keeping the age of consent at the high end, as all of the numbers seem to show that at the ages of 13-15 the cognitive and emotional capacity is not mature, and that is what is necessary for true consent.
It is also part of why the physical signs of maturity and the possibility of the child participating actively or being "willing" is unconvincing to me. The point of the law is that they don't have the cognitive and emotional capacity to fully understand the significance of their choices or their actions, and so the law lays the burden and the risk on the adult instead. We require the adult to excercise his/her adult judgment, and to protect the child from his/her own relatively poor decision-making skills.
I also continue to question why you find the onset of puberty so relevant. To me, it's not clear that it has an effect on any of the essential issues. First, it doesn't appear to affect the ability of the child to consent. If anything, it appears from the studies that the capacity for decision making may decline during puberty and immediately thereafter, as they show that risk-taking peaks during adolescence. So it may be that an 11 year old who hasn't hit puberty has better decision-making skills that 13 year old who has.
Second, I don't think it's convincing that after that point, a child may be interested in sex or act in ways that evince interest, willingness, or complicitness. The whole point is that the child cannot think through those actions or fully make decisions about that interest. In addition, I don't think that there is such a bright line between pre-pubescent and post-pubescent children in this regard. Younger children who are sexually abused may also act in ways that evince willingness or at least complicitness, for a variety of reasons. My understanding is that pedophiles often try to seduce their victims, and so they do try to draw the victim into the acts by making them feel special and trying to elicit pleasure in the victims, and the victims often do experience some degree of pleasure either in the attention or in the acts, up to a point. The resulting feelings of guilt and shame at the role they believe they played are part of why it's so destructive and difficult to recover from. It's not clear to me that this dynamic isn't similar in situations with an adult and a teen; if anything, a pubescent teen would seem just as vulnerable to that type of manipulation as a young child, if not more so. Other times young children may not resist or may become complicit or active over time because the abuser is someone they love and trust. They also may attempt to initiate sexual contact with other adults.
It seems relatively clear that we would all agree that a 7 year old who acts sexually cannot be held responsible for her/his actions, and that any adult should know that. What's the basis for feeling differently about a 13 year old acting sexually with an adult, if the evidence is that s/he also does not fully understand the significance of those actions or fully make decisions at that age? If the mental decision-making capacity still hasn't fully developed, or has even declined, I don't think there's a basis for giving legal significance to those actions in terms of the victims' ability to consent.
Third, I'm not convinced it's relevant from the point of view of the mens rea of the perpetrator. As an initial point, I don't think what a child's body "signals to others" should be relevant; clearly a child's body cannot consent for her by virtue of having breasts or menstruating. I realize that's not what you're arguing, but your inclusion of this point and the use of the phrase "signals to others" does come perilously close to invoking the type of mentality.
What I think is your point in using that phrase - though correct me if I'm wrong - is that it may mark a change in the motivation of the perpretrator, which in law could go to the degree of culpability. You say that a "guy who goes after 5-year-old girls is deeply pathological. A guy who goes after a womanly body that happens to 13 years old is failing to regulate a natural attraction." But I don't see any support for that conclusion in the article, and it's not all that obvious to me. From what I have seen on this subject (which isn't a lot, so I'm not saying I'm necessarily right), the motivations of men who have sex with children can vary. It can be pedophilia, in which there is strong sexual attraction to underage bodies; it can also be more like the motivation for forcible rape of an adult - where subjugation and control are a large part of the attraction. A man who has sex with a five year old may be a pedophile or he may be an opportunistic rapist. It seems to me that the same is true with a man who has sex with a young teenager - he may just as well be motivated and attracted by the imbalance of power inherent in that relationship; he may have some peculiar sexual attraction only to very young bodies. In either case, if the motiviation is predatory, why is it different? I'm open to hearing that it is, but so far it seems to be an implicit assumption that's never really supported.
Ultimately, with no data on this point to consider, I'm left with a more or less gut feeling that the men I know and respect feel pretty disguested at the thought of having sex with a 13 year old girl, even if she's hit puberty. In the same vein, I and all of the women I know and respect feel disgusted at the thought of sex with a 13 year old boy, even if he's hit puberty. I agree it gets mushier with a 17 or 18 year old and a 25 year old, though I'm still not sure of how I think that should be handled. But I just don't see it when you get to 13-15 year olds.