You seem to have it BACKWARDS
by
degsme
08/16/2009, 3:24 AM #
MF, you seem to have it backwards. You somehow presume that the US Government has infinite power extra-territorially. Yet the 10th Amendment is very very clear on this
The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, ...are reserved....to the people
IOW absent delegated powers, THE GOVERNMENT is not allowed to act, regardless of where it does so. Now combine that with Article III:
The judicial power shall extend to all cases, in law and equity, arising under this Constitution, the laws of the United States, and treaties made, or which shall be made, under their authority;--to all cases affecting ambassadors, other public ministers and consuls;--to all cases of admiralty and maritime jurisdiction;--to controversies to which the United States shall be a party;
IOW, the Court's judicial power extends to deciding what powers have and have NOT been delegated to the United States government. And this applies to ALL conflicts the USA is a party to... last I checked, wars were something of a "controversy" between the USA and another nation.
So explain again where exactly how SCOTUS' jurisprudence is "outrageous"?
Even by your own standards:
The Federal courts clearly have jurisdiction only over (i) U.S. citizens, (ii) persons within the territorial jurisdiction of the United States,
Are you arguing that the USA does not control the territory within the gates of Bahgram?