What a surprise!

Imagine glancing through a list of donors and coming across government agencies listed as donors, especially as donors in excess of $5,000.

While charitable donations might be considered worthy, the last time I looked government agencies have no money except what taxpayers are required to give them to hold and expend for government services. Since when did that include charitable donations?

If a government agency taxes in order to give to charities, this could be a good reason taxpayers are feeling especially poor, and resistant to taxation - with or without representation.

If government agencies are pursued for charitable donations, by earmark or any other method of solicitation, where does that place the taxpayer - required to give taxes for that bill?

Since the taxpayer is entitled to only half of his/her charitable donation as a tax donation, and government doesn't tax itself, doesn't that place the taxpayer as the primary subsidy of any so called "donation," or in fact, it's real name - government aid/welfare?

If government allows corporations to take deductions for charitable donations, are they required to limit it to half?

Or are full donations allowed from corporations who are also entitled to lower taxes so that once again, it is taxpayers who subsidize both corporations, and government - in the name of charity?

Low taxes is an admirable goal, but if government is giving it out as charity, can any tax ever be enough to satisfy the charitable firms that now rely upon government for donations?