Actually I think there is a more serious error or at least a lack of explanation.
You say the following:
"Only 3 percent to 4 percent of women in the higher income bracket had unintended pregnancies in the two sampled years"
Even without looking at the source, it is logical to assume that that 3-4 percent is a percentage of the pregnancies. So that means 0.04 * 0.12 = 0.0048
(Otherwise it would mean 30-40% of all pregnancies being unintended which seems high)
I went further I assume youget the data from table B called "Total pregnancy rate, total fertility rate, percentage of births that were wanted at the time of conception, and wanted total fertility rate, by race and Hispanic origin: United States, 1996 and 2003"
Where you also go wrong is the definition Total Pregnancy Rate. The article explains:
"Total pregnancy rate
The total pregnancy rate and total abortion rate are estimated using the same procedure as for the total fertility rate. The pregnancy (or abortion) rates at each age are summed (and multiplied by 5 and divided by 1,000). The result is the number of pregnancies (or abortions) a woman would have in her lifetime if she experienced the age-specific pregnancy (or abortion) rates in that year."
So as I read this the "3-4%" you claim is in a womans lifetime! And not per year....