"The flaw in this piece is that Clark Rockefeller ... or whatever his name actually turns out to be ... did not lose custody of "Snooks" (are these people serious, calling a child that?) because of any anti-father bias in family court. He lost it because he refused to substantiate his identity during proceedings."
"In other words, he was dodgy in court, and therefore was treated in the way that dodgy people are usually treated by courts ... whether they're fathers, mothers, sisters, uncles, whatever. His past, or lack of one, caught up with him, and his refusal, then and now, to identify himself, is his own problem."
Sorry PsiCop, but even on your redefinition, you are still wrong.
This couple (Boss and ???) settled out of court. There were no
proceedings. And this leads to the major flaw in your argument.
Even though you admonish me to isolate this to a single example,
which is a common ploy in rerouting discussion from the issue
that has extended discussion in and around the Boss&??? case,
you go on to talk about how "people are usually treated in court".
You extended the discussion beyond "this one case". Well the
is that not all people are "usually" treated in this way. Good,
unindicted, innocent fathers are treated like ??? every day while
mothers, even those actually convicted of kidnappings are whitewashed
during proceedings and given residential custody. In arguing
that ??? is not a wronged father you are arguing with yourself,
since you are the only one who has presented the argument and
you are the only one who seems to feel a need to pursue it.