Re: How to run a successful religion
by
picabia
06/12/2008, 2:39 AM #
I mean just that. B.F. Skinner wrote: "Unfortunately, the feeling that one is free is not sufficient proof that one actually is free." And that feeling of free will is all the proof there's ever been that our actions are uncaused. When we see a man act in a certain way, we say that he does so because he "wants to" or because "he feels like doing so." In other words, we attribute the cause of the behavior to an "internal agent"--whose behavior we can't explain either but about whom we are less likely to ask questions. That's nothing but sophistry, because we only inferred the existence of those internal agents from the behavior they are meant to explain. It's a fallacy to use an inferrance to explain the thing it was inferred from. The internal sensation of "wanting" or "feeling" to do a thing is taken as proof that he acts freely. But in fact, the same forces that are causing him to do a thing are also causing him to want to do it. Feelings do not cause---they are caused.
In no other field of science than psychology is "free will" any longer taken as a legitimate cause of phenomena. I write "any longer," because once it was believed that the behavior of animals, insects, and, yes, even inaminate object was caused by their "free" choices. For instance, Aristotle wrote that a falling object falls faster as it approaches the ground because it feels jubilant about returning to its natural resting place. But today, we recognize most phenomena can be explained without reference to "free will." No one with any rudimentary understanding of the philosophy of science believes it is necessary to refer to a beetle's feelings or desires to explain its behavior. How could it be otherwise, when beetles (and humans) are constructed entirely out of physical objects? Sure it was possible to believe in "free will" as long as we could believe in nonphysical "souls," but that day has long since passed. A person is a physical object.
The primary evidence for "free will" is the sensation of having it. When a person goes somewhere, he usually experiences the desire to go soon before actually doing so. But does that prove the action was caused by the feeling, or is it a case of post hoc ergo prompter hoc?
Even if we were to accept "feelings" are causal, what caused the feeling? Conventionally it is said the feelings and thoughts are not caused at all--they simply arise. That's prescientific thinking. Any science in its initial stages is likely to be very flattering to humanity. Astronomy and biology began by putting humans in a privileged position in nature. But we eventually discovered closer approximations of the truth. Eventually, psychology will have to abandon this notion that humans are special. If any of those who responded here (except for the 1st one, who mistook my statement about free will in the scientific sense to be a statement about political freedom. I'm all in favor of political freedom, but no power on earth can give humans the ability to make totally "uncaused" choices) was at all caught up on the research, they would know that free will has been torn to shreds in the last two or three decades. There's no room left for it, any more than there is for a geocentric universe or other flattering prescientific notions. The idea is dead, but, as Nietzsche wrote on a similar subject, "given the way of men, there may still be caves for thousands of years in which [its] shadow will be shown."