Why hasn't Christopher Hitchens ...
by
David Edenden
06/09/2008, 3:16 PM #
Why hasn't Christopher Hitchens ever commented on the lack of minority rights for ethnic Macedonians in Greece.
Was it part of your divorce settlement from Ms. Greek Cypriot to never disparage racist Greek policy against Greece as it continually vioaltes the human rights of the Macedonians and Turks in Greece?
Also, Chris, can you send to me the article that you wrote for "The European" see below.
Thanks and don't be a stranger!
April 7, 1993
To: The European "Letters to the Editor"
Re: "Not Just Paranoid about Macedonia" by Christopher Hitchens, April 1-7,
Mr.
Hitchens is incorrect when he stated the title of "King of the
Hellenes" was forced upon the newly crowned Greek King George "in
deference to Ottoman objections to the original formulation 'King of
the Greeks'". In the same way that Germans call their country
Deutchland in their language, Greeks call themselves Hellenes and their
country Hellas in their language. The word "Greece" like the word
"Germany" is based on ancient Roman usage.
The rest of the
article is similarly flawed. It reminds me of a lecture on sexual
technique that is given by a virgin. Although some of the facts may be
right, the insight that one might gain from a more intimate knowledge
and direct experience is missing.
Please no more "if this is Tuesday, this must be Macedonia (or is it Moldova?)" type of articles.
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