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infrequence equals deviancy? since when?
by framed0000

Saletan says "the percentage of Americans aged 25 to 44 who deny ever having had oral sex now barely exceeds the percentage who admit to same-sex activity. By empirical standards, if gay sex is deviant, so is chastity of the mouth."

Let me get this straight. Is Saletan saying that infrequence equals deviancy? That's just plain wrong. Plenty of infrequent acts are deemed morally okay. This rub anyone else the wrong way?

Re: infrequence equals deviancy? since when?
by blueskies
Its so heavily pushed and propagandised, simple curisoty will get people to try it. It's boring to me. But it's the prime mode of expressing sexuality for homosexuals, so it's to be normalised, part of the program. Also, it's a wonderfull way of reducing the birth rate I used to hear.
Re: infrequence equals deviancy? since when?
by caf2121
That's not what he's saying. The same laws that criminalize homosexual sex also include oral sex. Saletan is saying that if you think homosexual sex is deviant (presumably using the definition of deviance as an act that defies cultural norms), then statistically you have to believe that not having oral sex as deviant as well. It's just meant to emphasize the shock value.
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