All i am saying is that nothing in the Constitution says ANYTHING about whether a school board can constitutionally permit OR prohibit a student from denigrating a teacher. Do you thinks the Constitution says anything about this? In the First Amendment? which clearly says that it is limited to enactments of Congress? (hence the title of this topoc: What part of 'Congress shall make no law don't you understand'). I'm only trying to explain the originalist position. Sure Congress could some day enact laws relating to whether or not students could denigrate teachers and THEN the First Amendment would clearly be engaged . . but it is not -- to an originalist -- by the enactments of local school boards.