Re: What part of "congress shall make no law" don't you understand?
by
carlo rubini
08/02/2007, 6:45 PM
Hmmm. I don't understand your rejoinder. If the drafters of the 14th amendment had intended the result of their amendment's adoption to be that "Congress shall make no law" suddenly meant "States also shall make no law", surely they would have said so. Somewhere? Preferably in the text of the First Amendment, while they were in an amending mood? They did not.
And if I am wrong why did it take the Supreme Court nearly a century to discover this pretty fundamental change to the First Amendment?
Again I say, "Congress" means "Congress", not "State" or "school board". It's not rocket science. If the drafters of the 14th amendment had had any intent to alter that they would have amended the First Amendment to insert those words which you read into it. They did not.