. . and consider the First Amendment's use of the word "Congress". The meaning of Congress has not changed since the 1790's when the First Amendment was adopted. And the First Amendment hasn't been amended. So a bit of a quandary, huh, to explain how come a School Board, and not Congress, could be found to have violated the First Amendment in the Bong case, if you believe in original intent and in giving words their natural and intended meaning?