Are you arguing that the Nazis and Dachau are the standard, and if violoations of "the law" are not as bad as that of the Nazis or as horrifying as Dachau, they are not violations of"the law" after all?

It was a common jurisprudential question when I was in college: Was Nazi Germany a nation of laws, or was it lawless?

Interestingly enough, part of the problem with Nazi Germany was that they made that which was morally corrupt, highly anti-social, and evil, legal. The Nazis often legislated their depravity; making murder and oppression, discrimination and slavery legal, and much of what we consider to be that which is and should be protected by law to be illegal.