Although I disagree with defining "the pill" as a abotofactant, it can be used in that manner. The morning after pill is really nothing more than a large amount of the same chemical that is in the pill.

I got into a 100 post long fight with some people over this at XX factor a while back. Basically the issue for me comes down to this. Doctors are allowed to refuse to perform abortions based on religious grounds. Happens all the time. In fact they've long been protected from being fired for doing so. Is there some principled reason pharmacists should be different?

Here's another question to ponder: Let's say my local gun shop owner decides to not sell some type of gun for whatever reason. I have the right to buy guns under the 2nd amendment. Is he in any way infringing upon my 2nd amendment rights by not selling me the gun that I want, given that it's legal? Basically, to what extent do your rights obligate someone else to perform a particular action that facilitates them.