You say that "Differences in outcome do not prove external oppression"

Then you say "Your point is not rational because Chinese, Koreans, Japanese, Jews, Indians, Cubans, Filipinos, Muslims and other minority groups, living in the US, are better educated and wealthier than the average American."

If differences in outcome do not prove external oppression, then differences in outcome can't disprove it either. What does the above statement mean?

This is what we call 'talking out of both sides of your neck'