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Re: Scalia's a putz
by morganb

opus512 wrote the following

Why did the authors start with the wording 'a well regulated militia...'? Just answer me that, why did they choose to word it the way they did?

Here’s the way I have always interpreted this line. It’s the only way it makes since to me based on the way people wrote at the time; which, by the way, bears little resemblance to how we write now.

Because militias historically become the strong-arm armies of despots. The way you "well regulate" a militia is to have an equally armed populace. This way the people can regulate a militia gone bad. Remember that at the time a Militia was in reality a small personal army, which could be sponsored by either a political group or an individual.

Our founding fathers were often pretty smart guys who IMO would have likely appreciated the fact that the various militias played a significant role in defeating the Brits but also understood their inherent dangers if not tied to a common cause. Hence the need to well regulate the militia. Remember, it was a bunch of Individuals with guns who banded together to regulate a British army.

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