Well, my perception from reading your post is that you know this stuff better than I do. In which case, here's something I couldn't decipher from the paper: Are maternal-effects theories a likely bridge between genetic and hormonal theories (of homosexuality or other traits)? The question is on my mind because we're going to have to sort ot the various studies suggesting causality from different directions. Lay readers might be asking whether the previous hormonal/brain-scan study and this genetic analysis somehow discredit each other.