Polanski raped a 13 year old girl. He admitted to knowing her age when he had what he claims was "consensual" sex with her and pled guilty to statutory rape.

But even if she had been legally able to give her consent, she didn't. She testified that she said "no" repeatedly to the much older director who had first plied her with drugs and alcohol. So why the "alleged"? The man is guilty and has admitted it.

Am I missing something????