You have your history almost 100% wrong.
"The one which was invaded by its powerful neighbors throughout the 19th century, then in 1914, then again by its former "allies" after 1918. Then again in 1941. It created a deep set paranoia. If we had stopped with all the communism must be expunged from the earth talk, offered up Italy and Greece as a sop, and promised ongoing trade and mutual non-aggression things would have been fine."
1. The invasions of the 19th century were of Russia, not the Soviet Union. And nobody who knows anything about the ideology of the founders of the Soviet Union knows that they viewed any attack of the Czars from such as Napoleon's France as progress.
2. Germany did not invade Russia in 1914 -- Russia invaded Germany as part of a secret deal negotiated with the French (which, of course, the Germans knew all about anyhow). Germany's only interest vis-a-vis Russia in 1914 was to neutralize it so as to focus on its invasion of France, which it regarded as many, many times more important. In fact, if the Czar had simply done nothing in 1914, the Germans would have been delighted and would not have invaded at all. Germany did, in fact, help to ignite the revolution in Russia by transporting Lenin from Switzerland to Russia -- if they had not done this, it is less likely almost to the point of impossible that the November Revolution would have taken place. Germany did invade the Soviet Union in 1918, but only in order to force the Bolsheviks into suing for peace, which they did.
3. The invasions in 1918 and 1919 were not by the former "allies" of the Soviet Union but by the former allies of the Czar, who sought to reinstate him.
4. "Then again in 1941" means what? Hitler was indeed an ally of the Soviet Union at that time but nobody, least of all Stalin, expected that to last very long. Stalin assumed that war between Germany and the Soviet Union would break out in 1942. He was off by a full year, but to state that he or any other Soviet official of consequence viewed Hitler's Germany as an "ally" is ridiculous.
5. While I cannot speak to FDR's intentions as WWII wound down, it is a matter of undisputed record that Churchill and Stalin did write up a chit for Eastern and Central Europe which listed the relative degree of influence each would have in each country. Stalin indicated, with a checkmark, his agreement with Churchill's proposal, which included 90% influence in Greece for Britain and didn't even mention Italy. So if the Soviets required a "sop," it was beyond what they had already agreed to beforehand.
6. By the way, don't you think the Greeks and Italians might have wanted a say in which country was giong to rule them? Do you REALLY think Britain and/or the US exerted the kind of influence in either country that the Soviets exerted in Poland or Hungary, to name just two countries? That both Britain and the US secretly meddled in Italian and Greek politics is a matter of record, but they never sent tanks rolling in, and the Soviets did.
I say all of the above in full recognition of the fact that the United States has acted to violate the self-determination of nations all over the globe on many occasions. That is inexcuseable. But it doesn't excuse the fact that the Soviets did it, too, which is what you seem to be doing here.